by papereyes »
10 Apr 2007 13:43
Rawlie19 Z-Head Rawlie19 Am i totally missing something here? I thought that the 'fair play' entry into Europe was from fair play IN Europe? As Ipswich managed. The year they entered through the fair play league it was the season after they had already been in the Uefa Cup through finishing high enough in the league to qualify. Not sure that Uefa could care less who finishes top of their domestic fair play league.
Somebody point me in the right direction if I'm wrong.
Im sure 20 million has a big part to play in English football for fast flowing football.
What?
Anyway, 2000/2001 season Ipswich finished 5th in the Prem and qualified for the Uefa cup. 2001/2002 they finished 18th in the Prem and were relegated, however, they finished top of the Fair Play league in the Uefa Cup and were rewarded with a spot in the competition. Thus they played Uefa Cup football whilst in the Championship.
You're right but also, not right.
There's a three places in the UEFA cup for teams via Fair Play ranking.
Each league is also ranked for 'fairness'. The fairest team in the fairest league qualifies automatically (Manchester City in about 2003), and then the leagues that qualify for being fair (I don't know how) get their fairest teams put in a big fair hat and two team are drawn. That said, it might be through performance of that nations teams in UEFA competitions that matters. I don't think it is.
Three teams.
English teams to qualify through this route are Aston Villa in 1998, Ipswich in 2002 and Manchester City.