by Dirk Gently » 26 Mar 2008 08:27
by Chuckle Brother » 26 Mar 2008 08:57
Dirk Gently Keith Hackett explains how the offside rule actually works, and how Hanson, Lawrenson and so many others completely fail to understand it.
http://observer.guardian.co.uk/sport/story/0,,2267601,00.html
by Jerry St Clair » 26 Mar 2008 09:42
by The Surgeon of Crowthorne » 26 Mar 2008 10:01
by Row Z Royal » 26 Mar 2008 12:24
by Silver Fox » 26 Mar 2008 12:34
by TFF » 26 Mar 2008 12:37
by Row Z Royal » 26 Mar 2008 12:48
That Friday Feeling I'd love to see an ex official (Mr Poll wouldn't be too shy) on the MOTD panel to counter some of the ridiculous statements made by the usual pundits.
by Vision » 26 Mar 2008 12:53
Row Z RoyalThat Friday Feeling I'd love to see an ex official (Mr Poll wouldn't be too shy) on the MOTD panel to counter some of the ridiculous statements made by the usual pundits.
'greed.
When under no pressure, Mr Poll is actually reasonably intelligent. Also, because he's not in a cliquey TV punditry group, there's a good chance he'll call Lawro a plank and be done with.
by weybridgewanderer » 26 Mar 2008 15:20
Silver Fox So it's OK to stand in an offside position allowing you to gain a yeard on the man who will be marking you when the ball is eventually crossed in by your team mate, but if when you're stood there Julio Arca (as an example) woefully underhits a back pass to the goalie it's not OK?
by Thaumagurist* » 26 Mar 2008 15:25
by sheshnu » 26 Mar 2008 15:33
Thaumagurist* But what if he was already offside before the back-pass?
by weybridgewanderer » 26 Mar 2008 15:34
Thaumagurist*weybridgewandererSilver Fox So it's OK to stand in an offside position allowing you to gain a yeard on the man who will be marking you when the ball is eventually crossed in by your team mate, but if when you're stood there Julio Arca (as an example) woefully underhits a back pass to the goalie it's not OK?
no, if an opponent underhits a back pass you cannot be offside
you can only be offisde from a pass from your own team
But what if he was already offside before the back-pass?
Thinking about this, it's a bit like Jimmy Quinn's goal against Derby in 1994, I guess.
by weybridgewanderer » 26 Mar 2008 15:35
sheshnuThaumagurist* But what if he was already offside before the back-pass?
He can't be offside if the defending team is in possession, can he?
Anyway what about the situation where a midfielder slides a ball through for the forward who is in an offside position - he's offside, right? Well what if the ball takes a slight deflection from a defender's studs? He was still offside when the ball is played, thus committing the offside 'offense', but as soon as it rebounds off a defender he's not offside. Doesn't this count in the 'gaining an advantage' bit? I always thought it did but I am, apparently, in the minority...
by Kitsondinho » 26 Mar 2008 15:36
by sheshnu » 26 Mar 2008 15:37
weybridgewanderer This would be regarded as the same phase of play and would in theory be offisde, the defender was never really "in possesion" of the ball if it just deflected off him
by weybridgewanderer » 26 Mar 2008 15:39
That Friday Feeling I'd love to see an ex official (Mr Poll wouldn't be too shy) on the MOTD panel to counter some of the ridiculous statements made by the usual pundits.
by Deadlock » 26 Mar 2008 16:30
sheshnu Anyway what about the situation where a midfielder slides a ball through for the forward who is in an offside position - he's offside, right? Well what if the ball takes a slight deflection from a defender's studs? He was still offside when the ball is played, thus committing the offside 'offense', but as soon as it rebounds off a defender he's not offside. Doesn't this count in the 'gaining an advantage' bit? I always thought it did but I am, apparently, in the minority...
Keith Hackett And third, is the player 'gaining an advantage'? This last point is specific, and is not what Match of the Day seem to think it is. It applies only to an offside player playing a ball that rebounds to him from an opponent, the post or the crossbar. If he does not play the ball from the rebound, then he is not penalised for being in that offside position. Nothing else counts as 'gaining'.
by From Despair To Where? » 26 Mar 2008 19:24
First, is the offside player interfering with play? As advised by the IFAB since 2005, that means playing or touching the ball. Attempting to play the ball does not count - he must actually play or touch it.
Second, is the player interfering with an opponent's ability to play the ball, by clearly obstructing the opponent's line of vision or movements, or by making a gesture or movement which, in the opinion of the referee, deceives or distracts an opponent?
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